2010 AMC 12A 第 15 题

先试着解答 2010 AMC 12A 第 15 题,然后核对你的答案与精心整理的解答,解答来自 LIVE by Po-Shen Loh。你也可以参加完整限时模拟考试、查看全部 2010 AMC 12A 解答,或核对答案。

所有题目均经美国数学协会(MAA)官方合法授权使用。

15.

一枚硬币被改造后,正面朝上的概率小于 12\dfrac12,抛这枚硬币四次,正面和反面次数相等的概率为 16\dfrac{1}{6}。这枚硬币正面朝上的概率是多少?
A coin is altered so that the probability that it lands on heads is less than 12,\dfrac12, and when the coin is flipped four times, the probability of an equal number of heads and tails is 16.\dfrac{1}{6}. What is the probability that the coin lands on heads?
15−36\dfrac{\sqrt{15}-3}{6}
6−66+212\dfrac{6-\sqrt{6\sqrt6+2}}{12}
2−12\dfrac{\sqrt2-1}{2}
3−36\dfrac{3-\sqrt3}{6}
3−12\dfrac{\sqrt3-1}{2}
答案:D
知识点:二项概率二次方程
小提示:
两次正面、两次反面的概率为 (42)p2(1−p)2\binom{4}{2}p^2(1-p)^2。
The chance of two heads and two tails is (42)p2(1−p)2\binom{4}{2}p^2(1-p)^2
大提示:
这会化为 p(1−p)=16p(1-p)=\dfrac16;解二次方程并取 p<12p\lt\dfrac12 的根。
This reduces to p(1−p)=16;p(1-p)=\dfrac16; solve the quadratic and take the root with p<12p\lt\dfrac12
解答:
设正面朝上的概率为 pp。抛掷四次恰好出现两次正面和两次反面的概率为 (42)p2(1−p)2=6p2(1−p)2=16。 \begin{aligned} \binom{4}{2}p^2(1-p)^2 &= 6p^2(1-p)^2 \\ &= \frac16 \end{aligned}\text{。}
因此 p2(1−p)2=136p^2(1-p)^2=\dfrac{1}{36},所以 p(1−p)=16p(1-p)=\dfrac16。
这给出 6p2−6p+1=06p^2-6p+1=0,故 p=3±36p=\dfrac{3\pm\sqrt3}{6}。由于 p<12p\lt\dfrac12,取 p=3−36p=\dfrac{3-\sqrt3}{6}。
因此 D 是正确答案。
Let pp be the probability of heads. The chance of two heads and two tails in four flips is (42)p2(1−p)2=6p2(1−p)2=16. \begin{aligned} \binom{4}{2}p^2(1-p)^2 &= 6p^2(1-p)^2 \\ &= \frac16. \end{aligned}
Thus p2(1−p)2=136,p^2(1-p)^2=\dfrac{1}{36}, so p(1−p)=16.p(1-p)=\dfrac16.
This gives 6p2−6p+1=0,6p^2-6p+1=0, so p=3±36.p=\dfrac{3\pm\sqrt3}{6}. Since p<12,p\lt\dfrac12, we take p=3−36.p=\dfrac{3-\sqrt3}{6}.
Thus, D is the correct answer.
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