2008 AIME II Problem 6

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6.

The sequence {an}\{a_n\} is defined by a0=1,a1=1,an=an1+an12an2(n2). \begin{aligned} a_0 &= 1, \\ a_1 &= 1, \\ a_n &= a_{n-1} + \frac{a_{n-1}^2}{a_{n-2}} \quad (n \ge 2). \end{aligned}

The sequence {bn}\{b_n\} is defined by b0=1,b1=3,bn=bn1+bn12bn2(n2). \begin{aligned} b_0 &= 1, \\ b_1 &= 3, \\ b_n &= b_{n-1} + \frac{b_{n-1}^2}{b_{n-2}} \quad (n \ge 2). \end{aligned}

Find b32a32.\frac{b_{32}}{a_{32}}.

Answer: 561
Concepts:recursionfactorialtelescoping
Difficulty rating: 2460
Solution:

Dividing the recurrence by an1a_{n-1} gives anan1=1+an1an2,\frac{a_n}{a_{n-1}} = 1 + \frac{a_{n-1}}{a_{n-2}}, so the consecutive-term ratio increases by exactly 11 each step. For {an}\{a_n\} the first ratio is a1a0=1,\frac{a_1}{a_0} = 1, so anan1=n\frac{a_n}{a_{n-1}} = n and an=n!.a_n = n!. The same computation applies to {bn},\{b_n\}, whose first ratio is b1b0=3,\frac{b_1}{b_0} = 3, so bnbn1=n+2\frac{b_n}{b_{n-1}} = n + 2 and bn=(n+2)!2.b_n = \frac{(n+2)!}{2}.

Therefore b32a32=34!/232!=34332=561.\frac{b_{32}}{a_{32}} = \frac{34!/2}{32!} = \frac{34 \cdot 33}{2} = 561.

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